AUSTRIA-HUNGARY (Andy Jamieson)
A(Vie) - Bud; A(Gal) - Rum (FAILED); A(Ser) s F(Gre); A(Tri) - Ven (FAILED); F(Gre) Stands

ENGLAND (Jim O'Neil)
A(Yor) - Lon; F(NTH) - SKA; F(Nwy) s RUSSIAN F(GoB) - Swe (MISORDER, DISLODGED TO StP nc); F(IRI) - ENG

FRANCE (Paul Lacey)
A(Bel) s A(Bur); A(Bur) s A(Mar); A(Mar) s ITALIAN A(Pie) (MISORDER); F(Bre) - MAO; F(MAO) - Spa sc; F(ENG) - NTH

GERMANY (Greg Jacobson)
F(Kie) - Den; F(SKA) - Nwy; F(Swe) s F(SKA) - Nwy; A(Ven) - Rom; A(Hol) - Kie; A(Mun) - Sil; A(Ber) - Pru

ITALY (James Douglas)
A(NAf) - Tun; F(GoL) - TYS; A(Pie) - Ven (FAILED)

RUSSIA (Chris Groenewald - NMR!)
A(Ukr) Stands ; A(War) Stands ; F(GoB) Stands

TURKEY (Pablo Echevarria)
A(Ank) - Rum; F(BLA) c A(Ank) - Rum; A(Sev) s A(Ank) - Rum; A(Bul) s A(Ank) - Rum; A(Con) s A(Bul); F(AEG) - ION

PRESS

ALB - StP Gov't: If you fail to submit orders for A03 your country will be in anarchy.

ALB: I'm on holiday from the 1st July for a week therefore if you sent e-mails in that week, no reply until I'm back.

Anon: For those whose math does not extend ……

1. Do "Imaginary Numbers" Really Exist?

An "imaginary number" is a multiple of a quantity called "i" which is defined by the property that i squared equals -1. This is puzzling to most people, because it is hard to imagine any number having a negative square. The result: it is tempting to believe that i doesn't really exist, but is just a convenient mathematical fiction.

This isn't the case. Imaginary numbers do exist. Despite their name, they are not really imaginary at all. (The name dates back to when they were first introduced, before their existence was really understood. At that point in time, people were imagining what it would be like to have a number system that contained square roots of negative numbers, hence the name "imaginary". Eventually it was realized that such a number system does in fact exist, but by then the name had stuck.)

Before discussing why imaginary numbers exist, it's helpful to think about why we're even asking the question. Why is it so hard to accept that there could be numbers with negative squares? One has to come to terms with the things that seem so puzzling and confusing about this concept and see that they are not really so unreasonable after all, before one can move on to accept the existence of imaginary numbers. Having done that, we can move on to seeing why they exist, and what relevance they have.

http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/answers/imaginary.html

Anon: Secret Enquirer, Fifth Edition

Math Section

Re: 0.999... = 1

To all mathematicians, this is a rather elementary proof, yet there seems to be some confusion among the less mathematically inclined person. What is the problem here? Dr.Blank points out that the main issue is that people are thinking of this equality in terms of the physical world. This is a gross error. For you see, it is math that has its own separate world from that of the physical one. Things that can happen in math cannot happen in the physical world. For example, no where in the physical world can a perfect circle be found, nor can a pie be cut into exactly 3 equal pieces. So, before continuing to read more about this proof, one must separate their mind from any physical comparisons, because they just don't apply here.

With that said, let us investigate further;

Previously, we have determined:

1/3 = 0.333...

1/3 x 3 = 0.333... x 3

1 = 0.999...

The problem arises with the decimal representation of 1/3. Does it really equal 0.333...? The answer is yes, so long as the 3's never end! Again, one may think this is not possible. In a physical sense, they are right. You cannot write 0.333... to infinity. But in math, this is a very discrete number in itself, and that is a fact. Ok, say we do not want to deal with infinite decimals, then what can we do to prove this? This requires a little more mathematical knowledge, but none the less, simple to understand.

We can write the infinite decimal 0.999... as the following series:

0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + ...

or

9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 + ...

We can call this the sum of the series. To find the sum of such an infinite series, we can use the following equation:

S = a(1 - r^n)

-------------

1 - r

Where

S = sum of the series

a = the first term in the series, in this case, 9/10

r = the number used to multiply each number in the series to get to the next number in the series, in this case, 1/10 (eg, 1/10 x 9/10 = 9/100)

n = the number of terms, in this case, infinity, which we will denote by "i".

Now, we can note:

limit r^n = 0 ( 0 < r < 1)

n -> i

This means that as the number of terms approaches infinity, the value of r^n approaches zero. But since n = infinity, r^n is zero. So:

S = 9/10 ( 1 - 0 )

-----------------

1 - 1/10

S = 9/10

-----

9/10

S = 1

Therefore, the sum of the infinite series of 0.999... does in fact equal 1.

Game Odds, Coolie Loach, S03

Germany 2:1

Turkey 4:1

France 6:1

Austria 6:1

England 20:1

Russia 25:1

Italy 50:1

Letter to the Editor:

Dear Editor,

I don't understand why Ally would try to pass himself off as me. Quite ridiculous, wouldn't you say? Any who, I have received word that the secret enquirer will be revealing their identity soon. Is this true?? I cannot wait, your columns are so darn good. If it was up to me, I would burn all other forms of media. By the way, that imposter writes no where near as well as you.

Anonymous tipster

Well, Anonymous tipster, I'll tell you what, how about we strike a deal? After the first country has been eliminated from the game "Coolie Loach", I'll reveal my identity, how's that? Until then, thanks for writing.

This has been another edition of the SI

copyright 2006

ALB - Anonymous Tipster: Send me a few quids & I'll tell you who it is. BTW in Britain, Quid = £.

Autumn 1903 deadline: 5pm BST; 14th July 2006.